PMP Practice Exam Exam Preparation 1

1. Integration management is primarily done by
a. Product Manager
b. Project Manager
c. Functional Manager of each department
d. None of the Above

Answer: b

2. Integration Management Process includes the following
a. Develop Project Charter, Develop Project Management Plan
b. Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase
c. Both a and b
d. None of the Above

Answer: c

3. The development of project charter
a. Takes Input from all project management knowledge areas
b. Takes Input from only the client
c. Takes Input from higher level management
d. None of the Above

Answer: a

4. The present value of $500,000 received 5 years from now if the interest rate is 11% is
a. $296725.66
b. $29672.56
c. $296726.56
d. $396725.66

Answer: a

5. What is the usability of Net Present Value in Project Management
a. It is not useful in Project Management
b. The project with greatest NPV is selected if there is a comparison between projects based on NPV
c. The project with lowest NPV is selected if there is a comparison between projects based on NPV
d. NPV is used only for calculating profit margins but is not useful in selection of projects

Answer: b

6. Based on the calculations below which project should be chosen:
Project X will take 10 years to complete and has a NPV of $30000
Project Y will take 5 years to complete and has a NPV of $15000

a. Project Y
b. Project X
c. There is no difference between Project X and Project Y and wither can be chosen
d. Will not choose any of the above project

Answer: b

7. Based on the calculations below which project should be chosen:
Project X will take 5 years to complete and has a NPV of $30000
Project Y will take 8 years to complete and has a NPV of $15000

a. Project Y
b. Project X
c. There is no difference between Project X and Project Y and wither can be chosen
d. Will not choose any of the above project

Answer: b

8. Simon, a project manager was entrusted with the responsibility of choosing a project and given the following information. Which project Simon will choose?
Project Z has an IRR of 50 percent and Project Y has an IRR of 51%.
a. Project Z
b. Project Y
c. Simon will not choose any projects since IRR is not a criterion to choose projects
d. Simon will not choose any of the above projects because of high IRR

Answer: b

9. Peter, a project manager was entrusted with the responsibility of choosing a project and given the following information. Which project Peter will choose?
Project D has a payback period of 2 years whereas Project E has a payback period of 1 year.
a. Project E
b. Project D
c. Peter will not choose any projects since Payback Period is not a criterion to choose projects
d. Peter will not choose any of the above projects because of high Payback Period

Answer: a

10. John, a project manager was entrusted with the responsibility of choosing a project and given the following information. Which project John will choose?
Project F has a benefit cost ratio of 1.5 whereas Project H has a benefit cost ratio of 1.7.

a. Project F
b. Project H
c. John will not choose any projects since benefit cost criteria is not a criterion to choose projects
d. John will not choose any of the above projects because of high Benefit Cost Ratio

Answer: b

11. Greg, a project manager was entrusted with the responsibility of choosing a project and given the following information. If Greg chooses Project K what is the opportunity cost of selecting Project K?
Project I with NPV of $60000 and Project K with NPV of $10000

a. $10000
b. $60000
c. $50000
d. $70000

Answer: b

12. Who creates the Project Statement of Work
a. Product Manager
b. Project Manager
c. Customer or Sponsor of the Project
d. None of the Above
Answer: c

13. What are the different baselines used for measuring a project
a. Scope Baseline
b. Cost Baseline
c. Schedule Baseline
d. All of the Above
Answer: d

14. John, , midway through the project finds that the cost and schedule baseline has deviated significantly from the initial estimation. What is the next step that John should do?

a. Review Cost baseline and take corrective actions
b. Review Schedule baseline and take corrective actions
c. Review Both Cost and Schedule baseline and take corrective actions
d. Review the project risk management process
Answer: d

15. Who attends the Kickoff Meeting?
a. Project Team
b. Senior Management Team
c. All parties to the project
d. Client and Management team
Answer: c

16. Greg, a project manager found some deviations in his project and took corrective actions and changed the baseline of the project and since Greg had absolute control on the project he was able to implement quickly. Is his actions correct?

a. Yes, since Greg has absolute authority and he changed the baseline his actions is right.
b. No, since Greg has absolute authority he should not behaved in an arrogant way to change the baseline without consultation
c. No, Greg should go to the Integrated Change control process to get his changes approved before implementing the changes
d. Yes, since Greg is accountable it is fine if he takes care of implementing the changes without any formal approval
Answer: c

17. Defect Repair is sometimes also referred to:
a. Corrective Action
b. Scrap
c. Rework
d. There is no other way to define Defect Repair
Answer: c

18. Simon decides he has to make a change in his project. Which Steps should Simon follow in order?
a. Evaluate the Impact, Create Options, Get Internal/External Buy In
b. Evaluate the Impact, Get Internal/External Buy In, Create Options
c. Create Options, Evaluate the Impact, Get Internal/External Buy In
d. Get Internal/External Buy In, Evaluate the Impact, Create Options
Answer: a

19. What are the main tasks performed in Integrated Change Control?

a. Create a Change Request
b. Assess the Change, Look for Options, Change is approved or rejected, Updated the status of the change in Change Control
c. Change Project Baseline Documentation
d. Manage Stakeholders Expectation
Answer: b

20. A customer for Company A says they can’t pay for the project anymore and agreed to pay any fees because of early termination. What should Greg, as a project manager do in this circumstance?
a. Greg should send the invoice for the money owed to the Project
b Greg should negotiate with the customer and do the project in a reduced rate so the project can be completed
c. Greg should go to Close Project Phase of the project and follow the process
d. Greg should start looking for other opportunities since he knows he will be laid off if the project is not successfully implemented
Answer: c

1) Who holds the key responsibility of integration in an project?
a) Everyone in team
b) Team Leader
c) CEO
d) Project Manager
Answer : d
Explanation: Project manager is the captain of the ship in a project and integration management forms one of his key responsibilities
2) During project execution if there is a need to change scope of project is this a good practice. Can a project manager allow this
a) Yes . Broader scope could help generate more revenue
b) No. This is called scope creep and a project manager should never permit it
c) as needed basis
d) All of above
Answer : b
Explanation: Scope creep occurs when a stakeholder involved in a project feels that the scope can be extended and a project manager should never permit scope creep. This is emphasised by PMI’s PMBOK
3) An effective stakeholder communication tool is
a) Project plan
b) Project charter
c) Work breakdown structure aka WBS
d) Scope plan
Answer : c
Explanation: A work breakdown structure is the chart that helps in easy and clear communication among all the project stakeholders involved in a project

PMP Exam Preparation question answer knowledge areas


Integration Management Knowledge Area
What is the sequence of processes in Integration knowledge area?
A. develop preliminary project scope statement, develop project management plan, develop project charter, monitor and control project work, close project
B. Develop project charter,develop preliminary project scope statement, develop project management plan, direct and manage project execution,monitor and control project work, integrated change control,project closure
C. cost estimating,cost control,cost budgeting
D. quality assurance,develop project management plan,quality control
Answer : B
In which process group(project phase) will develop project charter,develop preliminary project scope statement fit in?
A.Initiation
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Executing
Answer : A
In which process group will develop project management plan fit in?
A. Closing
B. Execution
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Answer : C
In which process group will direct and manage project execution fit in?

A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Closing
D. Initiation
Answer : B
In which process group will monitor and control project and integrated change control fit in?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Execution
Answer : C
In which process group will close project fit in?
A. Planning
B. Execution
C. Initiation
D. Closing
Answer : D
What are the tools and techniques used in common across all the Integration knowledge area processes?
A. PMIS,Project Management Methodology
B. Expert Judgement,PMIS
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Product Analysis
Answer : A
What are the inputs to develop project charter?
A. Enterprise environmental factor,organisational process asset,contract(when applicble),contract statement of work(SOW)
B. organisational process asset, project management plan
C. Resource calendar
D. Cost Baseline
Answer : A
What is the output of Develop project management plan?
A. Project quality Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Project Management plan
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
What is the output of Direct and Manage project execution?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Deliverables
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
What is the output of Integrated change control (ICC)?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Approved change requests,rejected change requests
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
What is the output of develop premilinary project statement?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Preliminary project statement
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
What is the tool of Develop project charter process?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Project selection method,project management methodology,expert judgement
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
What is the input to develop project management plan?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
What is the input to direct and manage project execution?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Project charter
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : A
Scope Management
What is the output of scope verification?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Accepted deliverables,requested changes,recommended corrective action
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
Time Management
What is the output of Activity resource estimation?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Resource calendar
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
Cost Management
What is the output of Cost Estimating?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Cost Management Plan (updates)
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
Quality Management
What is the output of Quality planning?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Quality checklist,quality baseline
C. Project Charter
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : B
HR (Human Resources)Management
What is the output of Human resources planning?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Staffing Management Plan
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
Communication Management
What is the output of Communication Planning?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Communication Management Plan
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
Risk Management
What is the output of Risk identification?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Requested changes
C. Risk register
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
Procurement Management
What is the tool used in selecting sellers?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. seller rating system
D. Project scope statement,WBS
Answer : C
Ethics Professional & Social Responsibility
Who is the authority to take care of violations relevant to PMP certification?
A. Federal government
B. CEO
C. HR Manager
D. PMI (Project Management Institute)
Answer : D
Project Management Processes
What is the output of Select sellers?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Project Scope Management Plan
C. Project Charter
D. Contract Management Plan
Answer : D
What is the job title of the person who is primarily responsible for the quality of
deliverables?
A. The quality control inspector.
B. The quality controller.
C. The design engineer.
D. The project manager.
E. The quality manager.
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT an essential regarding a project close-out?
A. Documenting formal acceptance of the product.
B. Documenting the final risk assessment.
C. Documenting the lessons learned.
D. Documenting the final project scope
E. None of the above.
Answer: B
Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network
diagram and the Gantt chart?
A. Few resources
B. Key milestones
C. Critical dates
D. Critical dependencies
Answer: D
Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates?
A. How many hours a resource will work on an activity.
B. When an activity is expected to start.
C. How many work periods an activity is expected to last.
D. When an activity is expected to finish.
Answer: C
Certain resources have been added to tasks on the critical path so as to reduce the
project duration. As a result the plan should then be reviewed for the:
A. Possible lag time on other paths.
B. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path.
C. The most time consuming task remaining in the plan.
D. Emergence of a new critical path.
Answer: D
Under which of the following circumstances would project management is the NOT
be the preferred management approach?
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
Answer: C
Which of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of
the project?
A. Planning a turnover meeting.
B. Obtaining a sign-off from the customer.
C. Team celebration.
D. Project evaluation.
E. Performance evaluation of team members.
Answer: B
Which of the following is the MAIN reason for including incentive clauses in a
contract?
A. Reducing costs to the buyer.
B. Controlling contractor costs.
C. Aligning contractor and buyer goals.
D. Reducing production costs.
E. Reducing contractor risk.
Answer: C
In which of the following circumstances is it BEST to make use of the project
management approach? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Cross functional tasks.
B. Unique operations.
C. Product manufacturing environment.
D. Time-constrained deliverables.
E. Production-line environment.
Answer: A, B, D
Which of the following represents the pinnacle of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
A. Survival.
B. Self-actualization.
C. Safety.
D. Esteem.
E. Physiological satisfaction.
Answer: B

What would be the cost performance index if

BCWP =350, ACWP = 400, and BCWS = 325?
Note: Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP),
Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) and
Budget Cost of Work Schedule (BCWS)
A. 0.813
B. 1.078
C. 1.143
D. 0.875
Answer: D
Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has
the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A. Critical path
B. Dependency diagramming
C. PERT
D. Gantt chart
E. Monte Carlo method
Answer: A
Taking the following table into account, where would corrective action be MOST
effective when you make use of Pareto’s Rule?
Origin of Problem
Percent of Problems
Design 60
Development 15
Prototype 10
Testing 10
Fabrication 5
A. Development
B. Prototype
C. Fabrication
D. Design
E. Testing
Answer: D
Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?
A. Circumventing loopholes.
B. Developing workarounds for previous problems.
C. Increased project risk.
D. Getting people to work longer hours in overtime.
E. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
Answer: C
Which of the following are included in cost control? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Informing stakeholders of changes.
B. Preparing cost estimates.
C. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
D. Monitoring cost performance.
Answer: A, C, D
Which of the following statements depicts the key difference between contract
close-out and administrative closure?
A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion.
B. Contract close-out includes product verification.
C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.
D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits.
E. None of the above.
Answer: B
Which of the following factors are NOT included in cost control?
A. Preparation of cost estimates.
B. Informing stakeholders of changes.
C. Monitoring cost performance.
D. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: A
Where does comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of
work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk all occur?
A. Stakeholder meeting.
B. Resource leveling activity.
C. Project audit.
D. Contract negotiation.
Answer: C
Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram?
A. The expected requirements for critical path activities.
B. The expected resource usage by time period.
C. The resource assignments by work package.
D. The resource assignments by activities.
E. All of the above.
Answer: B
The “Cost of quality” project management concept includes ____?
A. The costs involved when changes are made to the requirements
B. The costs of ensuring that requirements are conformed to.
C. The costs incurred when requirements are exceeded.
D. The costs involved with quality control requirements.
Answer: B
Consider the following situation: The customer was given a monthly report that
indicates zero schedule variance. One of the teams members are aware of at least
one milestone that has not been achieved. This missed milestone will result in an
overall delay in the project.
Which of the following items were not reported on adequately?
A. Critical path status
B. Risk analysis
C. Communication plan variance
D. Resource management plan
E. All of the above
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT an indirect cost?
A. Insurance costs.
B. Payroll tax cost.
C. Subcontract costs.
D. Accounting support costs.
Answer: C
1. The difference between a time estimate and a schedule is that the schedule is:
a. Calendar Based
b. Activity Based
c. Project Based
d. Product Based

2. Schedule Network Analysis can be done by any one of the following:
a. Critical Path Method
b. Schedule Compression
c. Resource Leveling
d. All of the Above

3. Critical Path is the ________ duration path through a network diagram and determines the ________ time to complete the project
a. Shortest, Shortest
b. Longest, Shortest
c. Longest, Longest
d. Shortest, Longest

4. Select the advantages of using a critical path for a project manager
a. Helps project manager to determine where to focus his Project Management efforts
b. Provides a vehicle for schedule compression
c. Helps to determine which activities have float and therefore can be delayed without delaying the project
d. All of the Above

5. Float is also referred to as:
a. Lead
b. Slack
c. Lag
d. None of the Above

6. The different types of float are:
a. Total Float
b. Free Float
c. Project Float
d. All of the Above

7. Please select one of the following that is applicable to Near Critical Path:
a. Near Critical Path is farthest in duration to the critical path
b. Near Critical Path can never become Critical path
c. The closer in duration of the near critical path to the critical path, the project will might be risky
d. None of the Above

8. ________ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date or an intermediary milestone.
a. Free Float
b. Total Float
c. Project Float
d. Free Slack

9. ________ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its successor.
a. Free Float
b. Total Float
c. Project Float
d. Free Slack

10. ________ is the amount of time a project can be delayed without delaying the externally imposed project completion date required by the customer or management.
a. Free Float
b. Total Float
c. Project Float
d. Free Slack

11. Activities on the critical path have _____ float
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Fractional
d. Zero

12. The formula for float is
a. Float = Late Start – Early Start or Float = Late Finish – Early Finish
b. Float = Early Start – Late Start or Float = Early Finish – Late Finish
c. Float = Early Start – Early Finish or Float = Late Start – Late Finish
d. Float = Late Finish – Early Start or Float = Early Finish – Late Start

13. The advantage of float in a project helps the project manager:
a. To request more resources for the project from senior management
b. To guarantee work for the project team member
c. To better allocate resources in the project
d. None of the Above

14. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below:
Early Start of Activity A = 4 weeks
Late Finish of Activity A = 2 weeks
a. 2 weeks
b. -2 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given

15. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below:
Early Finish of Activity A = 4 weeks
Late Start of Activity A = 2 weeks
a. 2 weeks
b. -2 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given

16. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below:
Early Start of Activity A = 2 weeks
Late Start of Activity A = 4 weeks
a. 2 weeks
b. -2 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given

17. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below:
Early Finish of Activity A = 2 weeks
Late Finish of Activity A = 4 weeks
a. 2 weeks
b. -2 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given

18. To accommodate risks in a project, Project Management should make use of:
a. Float
b. Lead Time
c. Reserve
d. Lag Time

19. The types of reserves that project management reserves use are:
a. Contingency Reserve
b. Management Reserve
c. Float
d. Both a and b

20. The risk that remains after Plan Risk Responses process is the:
a. Contingency Reserve
b. Management Reserve
c. Float
d. Both a and b

1. In his project, Project Manager Pete obtained the opinion of his team and acted based on the opinion to influence the outcome of the deliverable. What kind of project management style, Pete is using?
a. Consensus
b. Consultative – Autocratic
c. Consultative
d. Democratic

2. In his project, Project Manager Pete obtained the opinion of his team and acted based on what he thinks should be done to influence the outcome of the deliverable. What kind of project management style, Pete is using?
a. Consensus
b. Consultative – Autocratic
c. Consultative
d. Democratic

3. In his project, Pete used the decisions taken by his team to solve one of the deliverable problems. What kind of project management style, Pete is using?
a. Consensus
b. Consultative – Autocratic
c. Consultative
d. Democratic

4. The team got highly motivated to perform in the project based on the energizing words given by the project manager. What kind of style the project manger must have followed?
a. Bureaucratic
b. Consultative
c. Charismatic
d. Influencing

5. The project manager wanted to follow the procedures in strict compliance in his project since it related to the safety aspects in his project. What kind of style the project manager is following?
a. Bureaucratic
b. Democratic
c. Influencing
d. Consultative

6. The project team always looks up to the project manager for advise regarding the next steps to follow in the completion of the project. What kind of style the project manager must be using in his project?
a. Analytical
b. Driver
c. Influencing
d. Democratic

7. The project manager emphasizes the team to work together and make decision together as a team and also have a lot of team building activities. What kind of style the project manager must be following?
a. Democratic
b. Driver
c. Directing
d. Influencing

8. Accommodating a problem is also referred to as:
a. Confronting
b. Avoidance
c. Problem Solving
d. Smoothing

9. Withdrawal of a problem is also referred to as:
a. Problem Solving
b. Smoothing
c. Avoidance
d. Accommodating

10. Confronting of a problem is also referred to as:
a. Problem Solving
b. Smoothing
c. Avoidance
d. Compromising

11. The project manager trusts his project team because they are highly skilled and just performs the management role and only talks to his project team when necessary. What kind of project management style the project manager is susing?
a. Analytical
b. Laissez-faire
c. Influencing
d. Bureaucratic

12. The project manager makes technical decisions in his project since he has technical competencies in making decisions. What kind of style the project manager must be using?
a. Participative
b. Influencing
c. Analytical
d. Directing

13. The project manager insisted he can take decision because of his role in the project. What kind of power the project manager might be having?
a. Coercive
b. Expert
c. Referent
d. Legitimate

14. Issue Log is a tool to manage:
a. Issues
b. Team
c. Stakeholders
d. All of the Above

15. Co-location is somewhat similar to:
a. Virtual Team
b. Remote Teams
c. War Room
d. None of the Above

Project Management Institute List of Certifications Portfolio


Many of us want to pursue a certification related to project management. The Project Maangement Institute popularly called PMI has a list of certifications to choose from. Here is the brief overview of many different certifications
1) Project Management Professional (PMP) – This is the most popular project management certification. This certification covers details on many different project management knowledge areas, project management process groups including initiation,planning,execution,monitoring and control, closing. This is most sought after industry certification to become a project manager
Portfolio management is a level ahead of program management. Portfolio involves managing group of programs that helps in achieving the strategic business goal of an organization.The programs need not be related. But all these programs are geared towards achieving strategic business goal.
In general management consultant does offer advice on improving the strategic business goals to achieve more profit. His proposal might lead to inclusion of new programs and exclusion of existing programs from the portfolio.
2) Program Management Professional(PgMP) – Upon certification the candidate is given program manager certification. In simple terms program is a group of projects and managing the program requires PgMP. This can be considered as the certification a step ahead of PMP
3) Certified Associate In Project Management(CAPM) – The most basic project management certification geared towards personnel who dont hold a valid bachelors degree
4) PMI Scheduling Professional (PMI-SP) – Scheduling the most important task to get the project finished within the timeline ensures project success. This is track that makes the certification holder a specialist in project scheduling
5) PMI Risk Management Professional (PMI-RMP) – This is the project management risk certification that is focussed on risk management knowledge area. For financial professional certifications like FRM,PRM are geared towards financial risk management.

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