Communication Management PMP Exam Prep Questions

Which statement describes best the purpose of the Communications management plan?
A. The communications management plan describes the information deliveryneeds
including format and level of detail.
B. The communications management plan focuses on the use of communications
technologies by the project management team.
C. The project management plan is a subsidiary document of the overall communications
management plan.
D. The communications management plan describes rules of behavior and respect for
communications in cross-cultural teams.
Answer: A
Being assigned as a project manager, you noticed during executing that conflicts arise in
the team on both, technical and interpersonal level. What is an appropriate way of
handling conflicts?
A. A conflict should be handled in a meeting so that the entire team can participate in
solution finding.
B. Conflict should be addressed early and usually in private, using a direct, collaborative
C. Conflicts distract the team and disrupt the work rhythm. You should always smooth
them when they surface.
D. You should use your coercive power to quickly resolve conflicts and then focus on
goal achievement.
Answer: B
A project manager tracks the work of team members using a network logic diagram.
Which effect will the presence of an actual finish date have on the calculation of float for
finished activities?
A. Finished activities have only float left when they have been completed on schedule.
B. When an activity has been finished, float gets often converted to become slack.
C. When an activity has been finished, total float gets often converted to become free
D. Calculating free float and total float is generally not reasonable for finished activities.
Answer: D
Which of the following statements BEST describes what project progress reports
A. It is used to predict future status and progress.
B. The project sponsor makes the most use of it.
C. It is an important communications element.
D. It is needed on a weekly basis.
Answer: C
During contract closure, a procurement audit includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Identifying successes and failures that should be recognized
B. Using the payment system to process consideration as per the terms of the contract
C. Reviewing the contract terms to ensure that they have all been met
D. Documenting lessons learned
Answer: B
Information about the project must be distributed to all stakeholders. Which of the
following process outputs is used to report the status and cost of project activities?
A. Work performance information
B. Issue logs
C. Project records
D. Status reports
Answer: A
You have been hired by a contractor, who wants you to manage a construction project for
one of their clients. The project team has been working for six weeks. You need to
determine whether the team is ahead of or behind schedule. Which of the following tools
and techniques is the BEST one for you to consult?
A. Project Management Software
B. Schedule Change Control System
C. Performance Measurement
D. Bottom-Up Estimating
Answer: C
Which is not an output of the Activity definition process?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Activity list
Answer: A
You are the project manager for the development of a new type of power plant. Your
project is making fast progress, and it is getting nearer to the day of product acceptance.
Which technique will be most important for product acceptance?
A. Audit
B. Impact analysis
C. Inspection
D. Team review
Answer: C
A work breakdown structure which has become part of a contract is often referred to as…
A. …FWBS (Final WBS)
B. …SWBS (Scoped WBS)
C. …CWBS (Contract WBS)
D. …MDBS (Mandatory WBS)
Answer: C
What is true for Statistical sampling?
A. Variables sampling includes collection of quantitative data on the degree of
conformity for each item of a sample.
B. Statistical sampling can be used to verify for each individual item in a lot, whether it
can be accepted or must be rejected.
C. Attribute sampling means collection of quantitative data showing the level of
conformity for each item of a sample.
D. Statistical sampling is commonly used in Quality assurance to examine if items of a
lot conform to quality standards.
Answer: A
Which statement is false? Progressive elaboration of project scope…
A. … means developing in steps. It not should be confused with scope creep.
B. …when properly managed, integrates elaboration of project and deliverable
C. …is a characteristic of projects that accompanies the concepts of temporary and
D. …signals a weak spot in the scope definition process, caused by incomplete contracts
and specifications.
Answer: D

Run state solaris machines DBA tip

Run control levels are different phases in the operation of an operating system. Following are the major run control states in solaris operating system. They are popularly called as run levels. They are usually referred to as rc.

Here is a brief listing of different run levels and their description :

0 – At this state system is suitable to be shutdown. For shutting down a system we generally issue init 0 as a root user. Another popular command is shutdown that can be issued as root user.

1,s,S – Popularly called as single user mode. This is the system administrator mode.Only user on the system is superuser/root user and basic kernel functions are enabled in this mode.Only /root and /usr file systems are mounted

2 – Multiple user mode without printer services and NFS services

3 – This is teh normal operating state

4 – Undefined

5 – boot -a command. System is shutdown using init 0 command and rebooted to an interactive mode

6- Reboot . System shutdown to inti 0 and started up to 3 (normal state). This can be changed in /etc/inittab file

Run states are defined in /etc/inittab file. It points to /sbin/rc scripts. Scripts with K as first alphabet are kill scripts and S as first alphabet are start scripts.

OEM Database express in 12c

Oracle enterprise manager is a database tool that helps with database administration. This is a GUI. This comes as part of Oracle database 12c toolset and can be installed as part of database install. Lets look at some interesting facts about Oracle enterprise manger database express in Oracle 12c
1) By checking the option to install this can be installed as using database configuration assistant
2) Default port taken by enterprise manager is 5500
3) This portal can be accessed via http://:5500/em
4) This tool helps us manage all the database activities. However we can’t perform tasks like STARTUP as this depends on a database in open mode
5) XMLDB is a mandate to make use of this tool. Port number can be changed using dbms_xdb_config.sethttpsport();
6) This is not for cloud control management and that happens using enterprise manager cloud control

Communication Management a crucial element in Healthcare Project Management

Healthcare Project Management involves applying project management principles to healthcare domain. As with other domains, healthcare projects involves implementing healthcare systems like RIS/EMR/EHR/HIS/HIPPA, HIE/IHE projects involving integration of medical centers so that disparate healthcare systems can talk to each other and share the patient information safely among practitioners, ICD-10 implementation the latest medical billing coding adopted across USA, Hospital information system implementation and management of all aspects of these projects as such.
Irrespective of the type of healthcare projects all these projects need to be properly managed adopting professional project management principles. One interesting knowledge area in PMBOK that finds prominent role is the communication management. There are many different forms of communicaiton that come into play as part of healthcare project management:
1) Communication in an interactive basis – This usually involves common forms of communication including daily/weekly/monthly meetings to get to know status of projects. Some Big 5 companies do have a policy to interact with team members on daily basis. It can happen between two people in private. It can be among group of people like team meetings. Presentation of project progress to team in form of meetings, conference calls with team members on one on one basis (or) group basis, conversational meetings are all considered Interactive Communication
2) Push communication – This happens when a project manager sends out email to entire team, communication of major events etc all in form of one to bulk basis. This of this as a simple newsletter wherein all customers receive communication from sender . Usually this is one way and consider reciprocation as no-reply email
3) Pull communication – In an organization project and its related documents including plan, scope, etc as well as tracking sheet is stored in a centralized repository. Team members will have to pull from there

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ORA-00937: not a single-group group function

Database objects are of different names, types. They can be simple objects such as tables which are simple data structures that store data in the form of rows and columns. Objects can be dependent objects like index, views, constraints dependent on tables. Some other objects are synonyms, sequences etc.
The dba_objects view has a column object_type which specifies type of the object. Every object has a name, type and is owned by a schema.
Here is a query to get list of different objects, number of different objects in a database. count() is a grouping function and should be always followed by GROUP BY clause.
SQL> select object_type,count(object_type) from dba_objects;
select object_type,count(object_type) from dba_objects
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-00937: not a single-group group function
This can be fixed as follows
SQL> select object_type,count(object_type) from dba_objects group by object_type;

——————- ——————
This fixed the issue. GROUP BY clause must succeed a GROUPING function.

PMP Exam preparation question answer

Project Management Framework is comprised of set of Processes and Knowledge areas.Processes can be grouped under five major process groups namely :
1) Initiation /Initiating Process group
2) Planning Process Group
3) Executing/Execution Process Group
4) Monitor And Control Process Group
5) Closing/Closure Process Group
It is comprises of 9 major Knowledge Areas :
1) Integration Management
2) Scope Management
3) Time Management
4) Cost Management
5) Quality Management
6) Human Resources (HR) Management
7) Communication Management
8) Risk Management
9) Procurement Management
Which of the following is NOT included in the quality management plan?
Answer: A
Which of the following actions are irrelevant when the critical path needs to be reduced by 35% on a project?
A.Crashing time schedule.
B.Paralleling activities.
C.Adding resources.
D.Eliminating float.
E.All of the above.
Answer: D
Which of the following concepts refers to a response to a risk event that was not defined in advance and is currently happening?
A.Risk mitigation response.
B.Incidence response.
C.Workaround response.
D.Corrective action response.
E.Contingency response.
Answer: C
Which of the following should be archived upon completion of a project that involved significant procurement?
A.Project specifications.
B.Progress charts.
C.Financial records.
D.Project charter.
E.Inspection reports.
Answer: C
Which of the following represents the reason why post-contract evaluations are important?
A.The contract fee is contractor performance related.
B.It establishes a historical base for contractor selection.
C.It acts as a point of reference for making legal procurements.
D.Most contracts make them a necessity.
E.They are legally required in many jurisdictions.
Answer: B
Which of the following does not form part of Project Procurement Management?
C.Stakeholder analysis
D.Work statement
Answer: C
Where is work packages described?
A.Work charter.
B.Work schedule.
C.Work breakdown structure.
D.Work project plan.
E.Statement of work.
Answer: C
Which of the following represents the BEST way to organize project activities for scheduling?
A.By the critical path.
B.By the task start date.
C.By the date of commencement of project.
D.By work breakdown structure.
E.By the responsible organization.
Answer: D
The process to change a contract clause is __________ the project change control system.
A.Integrated within.
B.Unrelated to.
C.The same as.
D.An input to.
E.None of the above.
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT necessary when developing a detailed project cost estimate?(Choose all that apply.)
A.Management plan
B.Resource requirements
C.Cost plan
D.Project character
E.All of the above.
Answer: A, C, D
What is necessary to check whether the scope of the project is being met?
A.Omit problems from the conference report.
B.Ensure that changes to the project character are reflected in the definition.
C.Verify the project schedule is on track.
D.Define causes and symptoms of identified problems.
E.Conduct periodic inspections, reviews, and walk-throughs.
Answer: E
During which of the following phases is a project’s scope statements developed?
A.The initiation phase.
B.The implementation phase.
C.The planning phase.
D.The verification phase.
E.The definition phase.
Answer: C
During a weekly meeting, the IT department states that they are bringing new CRM application system online. Though no problems are anticipated, in the event that a problem does arise, they will work overtime to stay on schedule.How would you react as the project manager operating in a matrix organization?
A.Assess the cost implication of this activity in the implementation phase.
B.Request that the IT department’s commitment be in writing.
C.Assess the risk of this activity and develop a response strategy.
D.Note this information in the minutes of the conference report meeting.
E.Request that the IT department delay implementation of the CRM application system until your project is completed.
Answer: C
What is signified when a forward and backward pass indicates total float is equal to – 20 days?
A.The project is estimated to be-20 days ahead of schedule.
B.Two branches converge on a node.
C.The critical path must be evaluated to determine actual slack time.
D.Duration compression may be required to meet the original project scope.
E.None of the above.
Answer: D
Which of the following approaches is likely to lead to the MOST lasting solutions in cases of conflict resolution?
Answer: B
Which of the following can you use to determine an individual’s willingness to take a risk?
A.Decision tree modeling.
B.Utility theory.
C.Monte Carlomethod.
D.Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
E.Sensitivity analysis.
Answer: B
Which of the following represents the MAIN function of the change control board?
A.Issue change requests.
B.Assign new team members to increase output.
C.Review the impact of change request.
D.Identify new areas of project work.
E.Represent lop management interests.
Answer: C
Which of the following are technical staffs particularly responsive to?
A.Ad hoc power
B.Referent power.
C.Expert power.
D.Formal power.
E.Functional power.
Answer: C
The determination of conformance with scope requirements is called ____?
A.Quality Planning.
B.Quality Control.
C.Quality Management.
D.Quality Assurance.
Answer: B
In which of the following situations would the PERT method be applied most?
A.When little experience exists on which to base estimated of activity duration.
B.When knowledge of the interrelationships of activities are crucial.
C.When there is limited knowledge regarding the cost estimation related to the project.
D.When resource requirements are well defined.
Answer: A
Consider the following scenario: the contract is a fixed price/lump sum contract. The change control procedure in place states that written authorization for all changes is required. You noticed that there is a 200% budget overrun due to one of the project team members verbally instructing a supplier to perform work outside of its contracted scope of
work.How would you as the project manager address this project team member for the apparent disregard for following directions? What conflict resolution style will you employ?
Answer: B
Which of the following concepts are associated with the “Cost of Quality” in project management? (Choose all that apply)
A.Appraisal costs
B.Management costs
C.Prevention costs
D.Failure costs
E.Planning costs
Answer: A, C, D
Which of the following represents an example of developing alternative activity sequences?
A.Rolling wave.
B.Contingency planning
C.Risk aversion
E.All of the above
Answer: B
How many ADDITIONAL lines of communication will be created when the number of team members involved during the project increases from five to ten?
Answer: B
Which of the following can be used to measure overall project performance?
A.A work breakdown structure.
B.A Gantt chart.
C.An earned value chart.
D.A PERT chart.
E.A flow chart.
Answer: C
Which of the following represents the final task during project close-out?
A.Reassignment of team member.
B.Verification that contractual obligations were met.
C.Transferring the deliverables to the client.
D.Completion of performance/lessons-learned records.
Answer: C
In which of the following circumstances is it BEST to make use of the project management approach? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Cross functional tasks.
B.Unique operations.
C.Product manufacturing environment.
D.Time-constrained deliverables.
E.Production-line environment.
Answer: A, B, D
of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of the project?
A.Planning a turnover meeting.
B.Obtaining a sign-off from the customer.
C.Team celebration.
D.Project evaluation.
E.Performance evaluation of team members.
Answer: B
When preparing the probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, what is the estimate with a 15% probability of being exceeded approximately one standard deviation___________?
A.Above the mean.
B.Below the mean.
C.Below the median.
D.Above the median.
Answer: A
Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A.Critical path
B.Dependency diagramming
D.Gantt chart
E.Monte Carlomethod
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT an input of the Contract Administration process?
A. Selected Sellers
B. Contract Management Plan
C. Procurement Management Plan
D. Work Performance Information
Answer: C
Which of the following is a “hygiene factor” under Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene
A. Self-actualization
B. Recognition for excellent work
C. Good relations with coworkers and managers
D. Clean clothing
Answer: C
Your project has a virtual team. Half of your team members are located in another
country, where they are working for a subcontractor. The subcontractor’s team members
speak a different dialect of English than your team does. After a conference call, two of
your team members make jokes about the way your subcontractor’s team members speak.
What is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Correct the team members individually, and hold a training session for your team to
help remove communications barriers
B. Immediately correct the two people in front of the rest of the team
C. Report the team members to senior management and recommend that they be punished
D. Remove noise from the communication by contacting the subcontractor and
requesting that the team adjust the way they speak
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT part of the Contract Closure process?
A. An audit to verify that all of the legal obligations have been met
B. Making sure all invoices have been paid
C. Obtaining formal acceptance of all deliverables from all stakeholders
D. Writing down lessons learned
Answer: C
You are the project manager for a software development project. When you need to get
staff from the manager of the QA department, he suggests a few test engineers with
performance problems for your team. Which is the BEST response to this situation?
A. Tell the manager that you know which team members you want for your team and he
needs to give them to you.
B. Call a meeting with the QA manager to try to figure out why he suggested those
candidates and how the two of you can work together to find team members with suitable
skills and interests for your team.
C. Tell the QA manager that the staffing problems are really no big deal, and you’re sure
that the two of you can eventually figure out the right answer together.
D. Stop talking to the QA manager.
Answer: B
Rekha is a project manager on a large construction project. Late in the project, her client
demands a big change. She assesses the impact of the change and tells the client how
much time and money it will cost. But the client won’t allow any change to the schedule
and won’t pay anything more for change. Rekha explains that the proposed change is well
outside the documented scope of the original work. The client tells Rekha that he doesn’t
care what was in the original scope and that she needs to implement the change with no
impact to schedule or budget. What conflict resolution technique is he the client using?
A. Confronting
B. Smoothing
C. Withdrawal
D. Forcing
Answer: D
In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep people informed
throughout the project?
A. Communications Management Plan
B. Staffing Management Plan
C. Schedule Management Plan
D. Project Management Plan
Answer: A
Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Contract
B. Preliminary Scope Statement
C. Work Performance Information
D. Statement of Work
Answer: C
A project manager is reporting the final status of the closed contract to the stakeholders.
Which form of communication is appropriate?
A. Informal verbal
B. Formal verbal
C. Formal written
D. Informal written
Answer: C
A project customer and a contractor agreed on regular Quality audits during execution by
a third party audit team, which is working on an assignment for the customer.
What should the contractor have prepared for the audits?
A. Quality documentation
B. Measurements and test results
C. Contract related correspondence
D. Work results
Answer: A
What does the term Best practice often refer to?
A. A standardized set of deliverables, like plans, reports, and checklists.
B. The concept of State of the art applied to project management.
C. A specific sequence of work, described in terms of Soft logic.
D. A set of Tools and techniques that a project manager should master.
Answer: C
You created a Baseline of your System configuration and added several changes to that
as amendments. Meanwhile you are afraid that the big number of Deltas may cause
inconsistencies and make you unable to understand the current system configuration.
What should you do?
A. Create an entirely new configuration.
B. Proclaim a Design freeze.
C. Revise the baseline.
D. Go on with amendments.
Answer: C
During execution of a project, you observe that the performance of some of your team
members is dropping, while others are doing a consistently good job. What should you
try first to bring the team as a whole back to performance?
A. Organize a team meeting and discuss openly the bad performance of the weak team
members. Try to find a joint solution during the meeting.
B. Introduce a system of formal and informal performance appraisals, research causes for
bad performance and solicit mutual feedback.
C. Introduce a competitive incentive system with a bonus for the 20% of your team
which is performing better than the other 80%.
D. Do not interfere, but allow the team some time to organizeitself and sort the problem
out by low-level conflict management.
Answer: B
Which is not a characterizing content of a document referred to as Activity attributes?
A. The person executing the work in a schedule activity
B. Schedule activity identifiers, codes and descriptions
C. Schedule activity predecessors and successors
D. The cost baseline assigned to the schedule activity
Answer: D
Which concept of locating team members can help them best to enhance their ability to
perform as a team?
A. Virtual e-teams
B. Co-location
C. Cross-functional dispersion
D. Global team dispersion
Answer: B
At the beginning of Project execution, you notice different opinions between team
members relating to project work and deliverables and to the level of overall complexity.
What should you do right now?
A. Organize meetings to identify and resolve misunderstandings between team members
in order to early avoid interface problems, disintegration and costly rework.
B. Use interviews in private with each individual team member to inform them of your
expectations and your requirements in an atmosphere of confidence.
C. Give your team members some time to develop a common understanding of the
project scope and product scope. Upcoming interface problems may be resolved later.
D. Use the Risk management processes to identify and assess risks caused by
misunderstandings and develop a plan with measures in order to respond to them.
Answer: A

Procurement management PMP exam preparation tips

Procurement management includes the contract management and change control processes requires to administer contracts or purchase orders issued by authorized project team members.
The knowledge areas overlap and come under the following process groups of initiation, planning, execution, monitoring and control, closing . Procurement Management includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products,services or results needed from outside the project team.The organization can either be the buyer or seller of the products, services, or results of a project.
In this article we are going to discuss in-detail about various processes that form a part of the Procurement Management knowledge area, their inputs, tools and techniques, outputs. We’ll be also discussing in detail on where they fit into project management framework.Various processes that constitute/ part of procurement management knowledge area includes :
1) Plan Procurements – Plan Procurements is the first process in Procurement management knowledge area.Plan Procurements comes under planning process group.As per PMBOK(Project Management Body Of Knowledge), Plan Procurements is the “Process of documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers”.Whenever a project has been selected by project selection committee, next step is to decide on whether to execute it internally or use an external vendor to execute it.Such make-or-buy decisions are made in this process.
2) Conduct Procurements
3) Administer Procurements
4) Close Procurements

Tablespace management related commands

Tablespace is a logical structure in database.Tablespace is the grouping of one or more datafiles which are physical structures that store database data.

Create tablespace:

SQL>create tablespace tsname
datafile ‘/pathofdatafile’ size datafile-size
extent management local — default.other value is dictionary
autoallocate size — other value is uniform
segment space management auto; — default is auto.Other value is manual

To check if the datafile has been created successfully use :

SQL>select extent_management,allocation_type,segment_space_management from dba_tablespaces where tablespace_name=’tsname’;

Remove tablespace :

SQL>drop tablespace tsname;

If the tablespace has objects like table,index when we issue the above command we get error.So use:
sql>drop tablespace tsname including contents;

To physically remove the datafile as well use:
sql>drop tablespace tsname including contents and datafiles;

To drop referential integrity constraints use:
sql>drop tablespace tsname cascade constraints;

Alter the tablespace size – increase and decrease.If tablespace is already occupied it is not possible to decrease the size of the tablespace.

sql>alter tablespace tsname add datafile ‘/datfile-path’ size datafile-size;

To change the size of a datafile:

sql>alter database datafile ‘/datafilepath’ resize new-datafilesize;

PMP Certification Most popular project management certification

PMP the project management professional certification exam from PMI the project management institute is most popular among project managers. As an aspirant aiming to learn project management concepts PMP credential is most sought after in market and the PMBOK standard is widely accepted. Hence, PMP credential is the crown among project manager aspirants. There are equivalent diploma, certification programs from many different organizations, However, PMP stands apart and always holds onto its lead position

We are certified PMP trainers offering PMP training with 35 hours of PDU :

Let us see why PMP is most popular and widely accepted among project manager community?
PMP exam is a rigorous process that attempts to validate the quality of candidate starting from application process. PMP exam application process validates the experience, educational qualification, expertise of candidates appearing for PMP exam to make sure they are competent to handle multi-million dollar projects upon completion of exam and acquiring PMP credential. This indirectly demonstrates the competency of candidates holding PMP credential