Selenium interview questions

What is test automation?
Test automation is the process of making use of software like selenium to automate the execution of tests, perform outcome comparison with expected outcome.
What is test automation framework?
Test automation in simple words is the automation of testing processes. Automation framework is a system built with needed components to perform this process. When it comes to test automation it is a framework that determines, controls the automation of a specific product. Automation framework is a system built on set of rules targeted towards testing a specific product
What is the advantage of test automation framework?
Automation is coded. This code can be reused for automating many test cases
Little manual work is needed once testing is automated
Testing cost reduction
One time development of code and framework can be reused multiple times
When is xpath used with selenium webdriver?
For traversing and finding elements within a document xpath is used. Elements that can’t be found using locators like id, class, name etc in a webpage can be easily located using xpath which is a syntax used for addressing into a document
What are the types of xpath?
Xpath falls into one of the following categories:
Absolute xpath – xpath single forward slash is used to locate the document root as per xpath expression. It is a direct way to find an element in a webage. If a change is made in the lement path the xpath will fail
Relative xpath – This starts with double forward slashes. This is used to search for the element anywhere within the document. This is common xpath expression widely used
What can be tested using selesense commands?
Selesense commands are selenium commands used for web application testing. A tester can make use of the selesense commands to perform the following:
Check broken links
Check for existence of UI objects
Ajax functionality testing
Alert testing
list option testing
windows testing
What are all the types of selesense commands?
Commands give direction to selenium automation engine on what needs to be done. Selesense commands fall into one of the following categories:
Actions commands
Accessors commands
Assertions commands

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C100dba mongodb exam sample questions

C100dba is the mongodb dba certification track. To prepare for this c100dba examination start learning with the following mongodb certification exam questions
1. What is the use of mongodump and mongorestore tools?
a. replicate mongodb deployments
b. performance tune mongodb deployment
c. backup mongodb deployment
d. audit mongodb deployment
Answer : c
Explanation: These tools are used to perform back of simple mongodb deployments.
2. In what format does mongodump creates backup files?
a. XML
Answer : c
Explanation: Mongodump is a simple backup utility that does read the information from mongodb database. Backup files are created in the form of BSON files
3. Which mongodb tool is used to report details on number of database operations in MongoDB?
a. mongodump
b. mongostat
c. mongorestore
d. mongotop
Answer : b
Explanation : Mongodb comes with set of reporting tools. Among these mongostat captures count of database operations like insert, update, delete, read counts. This gives details on load distribution profiles in server
4. Which command is used to determine storage capacity of specific database?
a. mongotop
b. mongostat
c. dbstats
d. collstats
Answer : c
Explanation : dbstats is a mongodb reporting tool used to monitor the state and storage usage of a particular database
5. Mongodb does provide high availability via which option?
a) Sharding
b) Replication
c) Indexing
d) Journaling
Answer : b
Explanation: In mogodb high availability is possible using replica sets
6. What is the on-premise solution having functionality equivalent to cloud manager?
a. Journaling
b. Ops Manager
c. Service Manager
d. Replica Manager
Answer : b
Explanation: Ops manager has functionality similar to cloud manager. As opposed to mongodb cloud manager backup this is an on-premise solution that subscribers can install
7. Which mongodb tools allow us to work with our data in a human readable format?
a) mongodump
b. mongostat
c. mongoexport
d. mongoimport
Answer: c,d
Explanation : mongoexport and mongoimport tools help in working with data in extended JSON or CSV format
8. Which of the following node is used during election in a replication cluster?
a. hidden
b. arbiter
c. primary
d. secondary
Answer: b
Explanation: Lets first understand what an arbiter is. An arbiter refers to mongodb instances that are part of replica set but dont hold data. As they dont hold data arbiter hardware requirement is minimum. They do not need separate serer, instead they can be deployed alongside application servers, monitoring host etc. In a replica set there should always be even number of members. Arbiters are preferred nodes to be elected during failure fo replica set
8. Which node in a replica set does accept write operation?
a. primary
b. arbiter
c. secondary
d. hidden
Answer : a
Explanation : In a replica set primary is the only member that can accept write opertions
9. What is the need of election in replica set?
a. secondary becomes unavailable
b. arbiter is unavailable
c. primary is unavailable
d. hidden node
Explanation : Election in a replica set happens when the primary becomes unavailable. Elections are needed for independent operation of replica set. In a replica set primary is the only member that can accept write operations. If the primary becomes unavailable replica set becomes read only
10. You are in a sharded cluster. What will you do prior to initiating backup in sharded cluster?
a. db.stopserver()
b. sh.stopserver()
c. db.stopBalancer()
d. sh.stopBalancer()
Answer : d
Explanation : sh.stopBalancer() is used with the arguments timeout, interval. Typical usage is sh.stopBalancer(timeout,interval) used to disable balancer in a sharded cluster. Timeout defaults to 60000 milliseconds. Interval is in milliseconds
11. You have a replicated cluster with 1 primary, 3 secondary, 1 arbiter. One of the secondary is hidden. What is the replication factor of this replicated cluster?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 4
d. 3
Answer : c
12. In mongodb how do you update a document partially?
a. $project
b. $update
c. $set
d. $modify
Answer : c
Explanation : The $set operator replaces the value of a field with the specified value

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PMP Questions

Which statement describes best the term Sink node?
A. It is a node in a WBS, where several branches are brought back together.
B. It is a node in a Conditional network diagram, at which it becomes deterministic.
C. It is a node in a Decision tree, showing various branches with the same chance.
D. It is a node in a Network logic diagram which has multiple predecessors.
Answer: D
Situational leadership as defined by Hersey and Blanchard consists of the stages
A. Must-be requirements, one-dimensional requirements, attractive requirements
B. Acquisition stage, learning stage, performance stage, exhaustion stage
C. Directing, supporting, coaching, delegating.
D. Direct style, instrumental style, relational style.
Answer: C
The use of scarce resources must be decided upon with functional managers before it
causes delays in your project. Which is probably your most important skill right now?
A. Negotiating
B. Facilitating
C. Documenting
D. Planning
Answer: A
You are project manager for a project with a multi-million value assigned by a company
that is listed at a US stock exchange.
Recent Earned value analysis after app. 25% completion told you that your project has a
CPI of 0.76. What should you do right now?
A. It is still early in the project and data are yet inaccurate. Wait a while and allow
numbers from the project to stabilize.
B. The variance is a signal of a sound project which is well under budget. There is no
need for action.
C. You should immediately inform your management, which should then assess whether
this CPI constitutes a material financial issue.
D. A project that much under budget may be a problem for negotiating future budgets.
Try to spend money somewhere else.
Answer: C
The ___________ can be used to assess outlays and funding requirements.
A. Cost variance analysis.
B. Cost assignment matrix
C. Cost control plan
D. Cost baseline
Answer: D
___________ are not necessarily used to establish the Cost baseline of a project?
A. The Risk breakdown structure and the Risk register.
B. The Project schedule and Resource calendars.
C. Schedule activity or work package cost estimates.
D. The Work breakdown structure and WBS dictionary.
Answer: A
Which statement describes best handling of assumptions during the Initiating processes?
A. Risks are a sign of uncertainty.Avoiding all uncertainties means that a project should
have no risks at all.
B. Managing and organizing assumptions means avoiding risks right from the start of the
C. It is the responsibility of the sales person in charge to identify all risks related to a
customer project.
D. Organizational, environmental and external assumptions should be addressed by the
project charter.
Answer: D
You have recently been named as the project manager of a new project under contract.
The sponsor of the project gave you the contract which has been signed by the customer
and a document Statement of work. He asked you to go on with initiation. Which
document should you develop next?
A. Scope statement
B. Preliminary scope statement
C. Project charter
D. Project schedule
Answer: C
Which question is not appropriate for a weighting system to evaluate seller’s performance
according to weighted criteria?
A. Has a CV of the prospective project manager been sent with the proposal?
B. What financial status and reputation in the market place could be assessed?
C. What is the yearly investment in development of personnel per year and employee?
D. How many reference customers have been verified by the seller in the specific field?
Answer: A
The Communications management plan is a document, which includes descriptions of6
A. Responsibility assignments
B. Stakeholder communication requirements
C. Activity level status reports
D. Project level performance reports
Answer: B
What is the benefit of a Weighting system over a Screening system when used for
selection among sellers?
A. A weighting system is faster and easier to use.
B. A weighting system is less prone to subjective prejudice.
C. Criteria for a weighting system are easier to define.
D. A weighting system allows prioritization of selection criteria.
Answer: D
Crashing describes a technique to speed up a project by…
A. …overlapping activities which were originally planned to be done in sequence.
B. …reallocating existing resources or assigning additional resources to the project.
C. …reducing the number of features of the product in order to reduce development work.
D. …reducing the duration estimates for activities to increase the pressure applied to the
Answer: B
What are extrinsic motivators?
A. Motivators derived from within the individual
B. Incentives such as money, gifts, and rewards.
C. Hygiene factors of the work environment
D. Motivators specific to an individual.
Answer: D
As a project manager you can assign any one of two team members to a highly coveted
task. Both are equally capable, but one of them is a member of your in-group. To the
other one, you have far more distance.
How should you behave?
A. You take the person not in your group to avoid misunderstandings.
B. You delegate the decision to a third team member to avoid the conflict.
C. Chose the group person. The trustful relation will benefit the project.
D. You disclose the situation to stakeholders and solicit a joint decision.
Answer: D
Which is a technique often used for Quality assurance?
A. Quality audit.
B. Code review.
C. Scope verification.
D. Inspection.
Answer: A
Which of the following are not common Barriers to project team building?
A. Differing outlooks, priorities, and interests
B. Excessive team member commitment
C. Role conflicts
D. Unclear project objectives/outcomes
Answer: B
Your project run for a customer is coming to an end. The customer has been contractually
granted a three years warranty period for the product of the project. What should you do
A. There is no additional work to be done. The contract should describe all processes in
sufficient detail.
B. Hand all relevant documentation over to the organizational unit responsible for
handling the warranty.
C. Changes on the product can affect warranty clauses. Ensure that these clauses are
aligned with the final specifications.
D. According to many legislations, you cannot formally close a project before the end of
the warranty period.
Answer: C
During execution in a project to build a major road bridge, your team found a hefty flaw
in the technical drawings. On an ad-hoc base, they had to find and implement a
workaround to avoid delays and mitigate technical problems. What should you do next?
A. It is normal in projects that, during project execution, inconsistencies arise between
planning documents and actual implementation. This is no problem as long as the
functional status of the product is maintained.
B. A formal change request from hind side is not sensible. Create some additional
documents describing the workaround and sign them by yourself, you can present them
during the next regular CCB meeting.
C. Meticulously document the problem and the workaround to create a requested change
to the project management plan, which will then be passed to the body responsible for the
change control decision.
D. The workaround was performed on a technical level only. As long as it does not
influence the function of the bridge or the organizational configuration of the project, a
change request will not be necessary.
Answer: C
What is important for Quality auditors?
A. They must be in-house personnel.
B. They must be third-party staff.
C. They must be properly trained.
D. They must be mandated by theauditee.
Answer: C
Your organization has the choice between several internal projects it could run. In order
to select projects, the organization assessed their strategic importance, investment
requirements, and expected cash inflow from the projects’ products, services and results.
What should the organization assess in addition?
A. The assessments done should be sufficient.
B. The frequency of changes to strategic goals.
C. The probability of changes to strategic goals.
D. The probability of the expected cash inflows.
Answer: D
The Contract management plan differs from the Procurement management plan by which
A. The contract management plan is written by the project manager, the procurement
management plan is written by the procurement department.
B. The procurement management plan relates to the project, while a contract
management plan may be written for each individual procurement item.
C. The contract management plan describes the type of contracts to be used. The
procurement management plan describes how the contract will be managed.
D. The contract management plan is output of the Plan contracting and acquisition
process, the procurement management plan is output of the Select sellers process.
Answer: B
What is not true for project deliverables?
A. Once project deliverables have beenidentified, their description should not be changed
any more.
B. The acceptance process for deliverables and how rejection will be addressed should be
described in the contract.
C. Project deliverables may be products, capabilities for services or other kinds of results.
D. Project deliverables should be identified, described and agreed upon as early in the
project as possible.
Answer: A
After a status meeting, one of your team members, John, pulls you aside and tells you
that he was insulted by a comment from another team member. He felt that the comment
was racist. You meet with the team member who made the comment, Suzanne, but she
says that the other team member’s performance has been very poor. She has never made a
comment like this before at the company. You review the records, and see that she is
correct – he has consistently delivered lower quality work than any other team member.
What is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Get John additional help for his poor performance
B. Reprimand Suzanne in private for her racist comments, and follow any company
policies for reporting racism among employees
C. At the next team meeting, reprimand John for his poor performance and Suzanne for
the racist comment
D. Suzanne has never had this problem before, so she should be given another chance
Answer: B
Which of the following is a defect?
A. A project management plan that does not meet its requirements
B. A change request that’s been rejected by the change control board
C. A change that the team needs to make in how they do the work
D. A mistake made by a team member on the job
Answer: A
Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to reward her. She
knows that you don’t have enough money in the budget to give her a bonus, so she
approaches you and requests an extra day off, even though she is out of vacation days.
She asks if she can take one of her sick days, even though the company doesn’t allow
that. Which of the following is correct?
A. You should give her the time off, because Expectancy Theory says that you need to
give people an expectation of a reward in order to motivate them
B. You should give her the time off, because a Theory Y manager trusts the team
C. You should give her the time off, becauseMcLelland’s Achievement Theory states that
people need achievement, power, and affiliation to be motivated
D. You should not give her the time off
Answer: D
Your team has identified a risk with some of the chemicals you are using on your
highway construction project. It is really difficult to mix them just right and, based on
past projects, you’ve figured out that there’s a high probability that about 14% of the
chemical supply will be lost in mixing problems. You decide to buy an extra 15% of the
chemicals up front so that you will be prepared for those losses and your project won’t be
delayed. Which response strategy are you using?
A. Accept
B. Mitigate
C. Avoid
D. Transfer
Answer: B
An important part of performing stakeholder analysis is documenting quantifiable
expectations. Which of the following expectations is quantifiable?
A. The project must yield a 15% reduction in part cost
B. The project should be higher quality
C. All stakeholders’ needs must be satisfied
D. The project must improve customer satisfaction
Answer: A
Joe is an excellent programmer. He was promoted to a role of Project Manager because
he understands technology better than anyone else in the company. Unfortunately, he is
having trouble doing the project management job and his projects are failing. What is this
an example of?
A. Ground rules
B. Gold plating
C. Halo effect
D. Pre-assignment
Answer: C
You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your team members into
a single room to work increases their communication, and helps build a sense of
community. This is referred to as a:
A. Common area
B. War room
C. Socially active team
D. Virtual team
Answer: B
When you look at a control chart that measures defects in the product produced by your
project, you find that seven values are showing up below the mean on the chart. What
should you do?
A. Look into the process that is being measured. There’s probably a problem there.
B. This means that the mean is too high.
C. You should adjust your lower control limit – the values indicate a problem with where
the limits have been set.
D. Ignore the anomaly. This is the rule of seven, so statistically the data doesn’t matter.
Answer: A
You are the project manger of a software project. Two developers, Bill and Alfredo, are
having an argument about how to implement a feature. Bill thinks that it’s more important
that the project get done quickly, so he’s suggesting that you re-use some work that’s been
done on a previous project to get started. Alfredo thinks that that work doesn’t apply to
this project and will just waste time. Bill is almost always right about these things and
he’s very influential on the team, so it’s important that you keep him happy. What should
you do?
A. Since you do want to get the project done quickly, you side with Bill.
B. Side with Alfredo. It could end up taking longer in the end.
C. Call a meeting to hear both sides of the situation and decide in favor of the solution
that is best supported by objective evidence.
D. Call a meeting in private with Bill to hear more about his position.
Answer: C

Administrative closure procedure for a project phase does not include
A. Analyzing success or failure
B. Gathering lessons learned
C. Collecting project records
D. Approving the next phase
Answer: D
You are assigned as a project manager for an internal project. During cost planning and
budgeting you found out, that there are peak times of costs during the project and other
times when costs are fairly low. What could this mean for the project?
A. You may find another project manager with a project which has a different rhythm of
high and low costs. Then, you may be able to move budget during one project’s low cost
periods to the other project.
B. You are a project manager and work with a lifecycle budget for your project. Fiscal
budgets are a matter of the functional organization, and you have generally not to care
about them.
C. You can silently create budget contingencies during low-cost periods and re-use them
later during those periods when you have to cover peak levels in project costs.
D. The fiscal budget mechanism which is used by the performing organization may not
allow for cost peaks in your project, and you may have to smooth expenditures over time.
Answer: D
What is commonly the purpose of the Manage stakeholders process?
A. Resolving issues.
B. Ensuring stakeholder value.
C. Identifying stakeholders.
D. Ensuring the order of phases.
Answer: A
Which is not an activity included in the Integrated change control process?
A. Performing Milestone trend analysis (MTA)
B. Documenting the allover impact of Requested changes
C. Reviewing and approving Change requests
D. Maintaining the integrity of Baselines
Answer: A
The members of your project team have been assigned to your project with general
availability levels of 50%.
Yesterday, they reported to you that significant variances occurred during project
execution. You observed that the team members are spending less than 50% of their time
working for your project. Your project schedule is on the way to become heavily delayed
and deadlines are in jeopardy. What should you do?
A. Talk to your sponsor and try to get more resources assigned on similar conditions as
the existing ones.
B. Ignore the difficulties, adjust your schedule and negotiate new deadlines according to
the slower progress.
C. Talk with the line managers. Negotiate clear and written assignments with predictable
levels of effort.
D. Focus on internal charges. Make sure that your project is not getting charged for more
than the actual work.
Answer: C

You are defining evaluation criteria for your project. The procurement item is readily
available from a number of acceptable sellers. On which criterion may you focus on in
such a situation?
A. Seller’s management approach
B. Price offered by the seller
C. Seller’s financial capacity
D. Understanding of your need
Answer: B
Which is generally not regarded as one of the three categories of culture that managers
should master?
A. National culture
B. Organizational culture
C. Functional culture
D. Project culture
Answer: D
You are the manager of a major project to develop a system of barriers to prevent a
seaside city from flooding. Together with your team you created a Code of conduct
stating that the Change control board must be immediately notified of gifts when the
value exceeds $90. The same applies to invitations when the value exceeds $150.
Today, a contractor executive sent you an invitation for a night at an opera with a value
of $95. It is a one-time event and you tried to obtain tickets by yourself without success.
The person told you that he would so much wish to join you, but he will not be available
on that day, and he could get hold of only one ticket anyway.
What do you have to do?
A. One may regard the ticket as a gift, but it is just at the limit: You do not have to notify
the CCB.
B. The ticket is a gift and over of the limit. You have to notify the CCB who will make
the decision.
C. You are allowed to accept invitations with a value of up to $150, so there should be no
D. You are the project manager. The rules are in place to strengthen your position. They
do not apply to you.
Answer: B
When should the Project schedule be developed?
A. As early in the project as possible. A stable schedule should be there before
performing any other planning processes.
B. When most planning processes from scope and time management have been finished.
This will be iterated when necessary.
C. During initiating. The project schedule should be developed concurrently with the
preliminary scope statement.
D. Scheduling should be avoided. Agile approaches with a backlog and a 4 to 8-weekly
meeting cycle are sufficient.
Answer: B
Understanding of _________________ characteristics of people is not part of
understanding the cultural and social environment.
A. economic
B. ethnic and religious
C. individual
D. educational
Answer: C
 You are managing a large construction project that’s been broken down into sub-projects

(or phases). Each of these sub-projects is scheduled to take between three and six months
to complete. At the end of each subproject, you plan to go through the closing processes
and document lessons learned. Which of the following BEST describes what you must do
at the beginning of each sub-project or phase?
A. Use the Earned Value Technique to decide whether or not to finish the project
B. Make sure you don’t involve the team, to avoid introducing too much project
management overhead
C. Develop the preliminary scope statement for the phase
D. Release all resources from the project and contact sellers to renegotiate all contracts
Answer: C
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Risk Monitoring and Control?
A. Revisiting your risk register to review and reassess risks
B. Using Earned Value analysis to find variances that point to potential project problems
C. Bringing in an outside party to review your risk response strategies
D. Gathering information about how the work is being performed
Answer: D
What is the main output of the Scope Definition process?
A. Preliminary Scope Statement
B. Scope Dictionary
C. Project Scope Statement
D. Scope Definition
Answer: C
A company uses a management technique that employs quality assurance techniques to
continuously improve all processes. This is called:
A. Ishikawa Diagrams
B. Kaizen
C. Inspection
D. Just In Time Management
Answer: B
At the beginning of the project, you hold a meeting with all of the stakeholders in your
project in order to figure out how everyone will communicate as the work goes on.
Which of the following terms best describes that meeting?
A. Qualitative Analysis
B. Communication Plan meeting
C. Kick-off meeting
D. Status meeting
Answer: C
You have been asked to select between three projects. Project A has a net present value
of $54,750 and will take six months to complete. Project B has a net present value of
$85,100 and will take two years to complete. Project C has a net present value of $15,000
and a benefit-cost ratio of 5:2. Which project should you choose?
A. Project A
B. There is not enough information to decide
C. Project B
D. Project C
Answer: C

RMAN-06004: ORACLE error from recovery catalog database: RMAN-20018: database not found in recovery catalog

We’ve seen details on creating a recovery catalog in a database. rman 06004 error happens while recovery catalog is configured to be used with RMAN

It is possible to create virtual catalog which is a special role granted to users to access certain portion of recovery catalog. It’ll be usually read and write access to specific database instances in the recovery catalog. Follow the steps and create the user to whom you want to grant virtual private catalog access and grant him RECOVERY_CATALOG_OWNER privilege

SQL> create user virtual_rman identified by virtual;
User created.
SQL> alter user virtual_rman temporary tablespace temp;
User altered.
SQL> grant recovery_catalog_owner to virtual_rman;
Grant succeeded.
Now connect to RMAN recovery catalog as rman user created previously. Grant virtual private catalog role to user virtual_rman

RMAN> connect catalog rman/password
connected to recovery catalog database
RMAN> grant catalog for database databasename to virtual_rman;
RMAN-00571: ===========================================================
RMAN-00569: =============== ERROR MESSAGE STACK FOLLOWS ===============
RMAN-00571: ===========================================================
RMAN-06004: ORACLE error from recovery catalog database: RMAN-20018: database not found in
recovery catalog
This is because target database is not registered with recovery catalog. Register it first, grant the role. It will succeed
RMAN> connect target /
connected to target database: dbname (DBID=34541)
RMAN> register database;
database registered in recovery catalog
starting full resync of recovery catalog
full resync complete
RMAN> report schema;
Report of database schema for database with db_unique_name value
RMAN>  grant catalog for database databasename to virtual_rman;
Grant succeeded.
RMAN> connect catalog virtual_rman/virtual_rman@dbname
Now user virtual_rman connects to base recovery catalog and creates virtual private catalog
RMAN> connect catalog virtual_rman/virtual_rman@dbname;
connected to recovery catalog database
RMAN> create virtual catalog;
found eligible base catalog owned by RMAN
created virtual catalog against base catalog owned by RMAN

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NABCEP certification requirements

Certification has become a norm in all the field. Environmental science is no way different than others. With the environmental science jobs expected to grow at very rapid rate and need for clean tech is gaining momentum at great pace solar energy the clean renewable energy has become a norm in clean technology.
To start with if you are a Solar PV Professional it is right time to consider NABCEP certification.
So, why should you consider taking NANCEP certification? What unique advantages does this offer?
1) This provides set of national standrds by which PV professionals with needed skills, experience, expertise can project themselves class apart
2) Certification makes you stand unique in competetion
3) If you are certified it gives confidence among general public
4) If you are certified you are naturally more skilled. This offersmuch protection to customers choosing to employ PV professionals in solar PV projects
5) NABCEP PV Installation Professional certification has been developed in accordance with the best practices of the certification field
6) NABCEP is a member of the Institute for Credentialing Excellence (I.C.E.) and has endeavored to follow the requirements of ISO/IEC Standard 17024: General Requirements for Bodies Operating Certification Systems of Persons
7) NABCEP Solar PV Installation Professional Certification is North America’s only renewable energy personnel certification that has been ANSI accredited to the internationally recognized ISO/IEC 17024 standard
Who are the target audience that can think about NABCEP certification?
Anyone involved in solar PV projects can seriously think about this. This includes but not limited to:
1) Solar PV installers
2) PV project managers
3) PV foreman/supervisor
4) PV designers

What is requirement to avail NABCEP certification?

We have spoken about unique features of NABCEP certification. Now lets take a look at what does it take to appear for NABCEP certification exam?
1) Candidates for the Solar PV Installation Professional Certification must have experience in the field acting as one of the following – the person responsible for installing PV systems, a minimum of 58 hours of advanced PV training and an OSHA 10 hour construction industry card or equivalent
2) Candidates must pay for and complete an application by the exam deadline
3) Specific requirements for each candidate vary by category according to experience in the PV field and their background
4) Refer the certification handbook and choose category before applying. For any category chosen all the certification requirements must be met
5) Solar PV Installation Professional exam candidates must meet all training and installation requirements that are outlined in the following section of handbook

Find your next job linkedin

Career At Linkedin is what many of us aspire. It is always interesting to know more on what is expected out of candidates interested in joining linkedin the most popular professional networking site in the globe
The stocks of spiked from as low as $50 to about $280+ in less than three years that speaks for itself. IT would make wildest sense to find job placement in a company like Lets see some interesting tips on how to find a career at

1) Start learning java and related web technologies

2) Become conversant with SQL

3) Start learning database that make use of nosql like cassandra,mongodb etc. handles big data and it makes wildest sense to learn NoSQL technologies that help handle and process big data

4) Have basic knowledge of networking, OS commands etc

5) Knowledge of python,perl, shell,ruby on rails and such scripting language
New Career in less than one month using :
All of us aspire to achieve big. This starts with cracking our next big career opportunity. In the past it used to be cumbersome including creation of profile, locating appropriate career opportunities, applying for the right job, grabbing the job, perform good negotiation, accepting the offer , background check and finally joining the new job.
With changing trends we don’t have to wait too long to grab the next big career opportunity. has made it a piece of cake to grab your next job opportunity. Here are some simple productive tips to hit the wagon
1) Keep your profile up-to-date
2) If you are serious about job search utilize premium. Linkedin Premium now comes for free upto 1 month of usage. This helps us get in touch with recruiters/employers who accept inMail only
3) Add all the skills that match your profile. These keywords help you position better
4) Get recommendations from co-workers both current and past. This gives more weightage to your profile
5) Attach digital copies of certifications like PMP etc. This helps your prospective employer make sure that your credentials are in good standing
6) Articulate your ambition in description section – Your description section is the mirror of your career thoughts. Clearly articulate your current profile, your expectations in next big
7) Add correct mobile number, email, contact details to the profile and make it visible to your connections
8) Develop a habit to expand your connections on a continuous basis
9) Dedicate 1 hour per day exclusively to grow professionally

Start Preparing for campus interview today

As a measure to help freshers and candidates actively looking for a new job, we have included a new section on aptitude exam preparation,campus interview, group discussion,how to face the interview. Follow these simple tips and tricks and crack the interview for free. First step in facing an interview is aptitude exam. Many of us are interested in knowing what are the best books in market that will help us in clearing the aptitude exam
1) Maths Tables book – Trust me – Mathematical tables play a major role in cracking not only the aptitude exam but also many major competitive exams like CAT,SAT,MAT,IAS and many more. So have a good grep on mathematical tables. It is recommended to be thorough with 30 tables (i.e) 1X1 until 1X30…30X1 until 30X30. Have an habit of going through tables whenever you find free time. This helps
2) R.S.Agarwal – This aptitude exam preparation is the basic book to start with. Simple formulas and strategies in this book help us proceed further
3) Sakunthala Devi Puzzle – Next comes the interesting 4 book set sakunhtala devi puzzle. It was popular that Infosys aptitude can be cleared with sakunthala devi puzzles once. Now though it is true this is used across many manjor MNC aptitude papers
4) Barrons GRE Exam Preparation – This is the most interesting vocabulary book. Though it is recommended to start preparing the wordlist from 3rd year, I’d recommend to learn 5 words a day from 1st year onwards. Make it a part of life. This is very important as it is the fundamental upon which reading comprehension, choose the best answer etc can be cracked.So, have a good grep on words. Also, GRE,GMAT exams can be cleared with amazing scores if the wordpower is good
Though there are few more books like Tata McGrawhill aptitude preparation, these books are essential and will help us clear the exams with ease.

SugarCRM Jobs

Sugar CRM is the most popular open-source dustomer relationship management solution. It is widely used with about 6000+ unique customer base. Customer Relationship Management solutions,CRM as they are popularly called is used to increase the profit of a business by executing marketing programs, which will lead to sales growth. It helps in retaining the customer base. Sugar CRM is used to build custom applications geared towards achieving this goal.
Why is sugarCRM so popular?
1) It is the decade of open source technologies. Besides popular CRM solutions like Salesforce CRM which is licensed customers prefer to use sugarCRM which is a open source CRM. Also, many interesting and useful features have been included in sugarCRM which really parallel with licensed salesforce CRM.
2) SugarCRM is flexible and easy to use
3) SugarCRM can be deployed in popular cloud platforms including Amazon EC2(Elastic cloud), Microsoft Azure, Sugar on-demand. We can have sugarCRM setup and run in private cloud computing platforms as well
Give some more open source CRM:-
SugarCRM is the most popular open source CRM. Besides this TigerCRM is another interesting open source CRM.

Give some open source CRM’s that are equivalent to sugarCRM?

TigerCRM is a popular open source CRM that is gaining popularity equal to sugarCRM

Oracle applications interview questions

What is relationship between rapid clone and autoconfig?
Cloning a critical task that an Oracle applications DBA performs on a regular basis, is the process of creating replicas of source instance.
It is a need to create replica of production instance along with data for the testing team to test some modifications before the changes become live.
In such cases cloning is the process used to create replica of production instance.
Autoconfig had been used in earlier releases of 11i to perform cloning.
Rapid clone is an automated cloning technique which uses Autoconfig internally to perform cloning.
Give details on FNDCPASS, FND Functionality is a functionality in Oracle 11i and R12 :-
FND functionality is use to change the passwords of application user, product schema password, APPS password.
The executable used for performing this task is FNDCPASS.
Directory Location : $FND_TOP/bin
Usage of FNDCPASS and options available can be obtained by typing FNDCPASS in command prompt.
Report Review Agent — FNDFS is a text viewer used by Oracle applications for viewing the log and output files of Concurrent Manager requests.FNDFS executable uses the Report Review Agent Listener in the 8.0.6 Oracle Home installed on the application tier.
The report review agent uses two major configuration files :
1) listener.ora
2) tnsnames.ora
Location of these files — $ORACLE_HOME/network/admin
FNDFS listener is automatically configured by the system.When a user makes a request to view a report, FNDFS program is launched.FNDFS connectivity can be configured by configuring the tnsnames.ora file.
Location of tnsnames.ora file — $TNS_ADMIN/tnsnames.ora
An alias is created for FNDFS_nodename.The tnsnames.ora file defines connections to the FNDFS listener adn it contains the address list of all the services that we can connect to from the client.
What are different oracle applications database objects?
Different kinds of objects can be stored in the oracle applications database (oracle e-business suite R12). It can be :
1) Materialized view objects – These are hybrid objects. They are used to store and process data
2) Database objects – These objects store data. It includes tables, index, sequence, IOT (Index-organized tables)
3) Code objects – These are program codes. It includes PL/SQL objects such as PL/SQL package, java-stored procedure, synonym, triggers
What is significance of opmn process manager notification server?
Oracle Process Manager And Notification Server (OPMN) is a new feature added in Oracle Applications R12 (release 12) tech stack.OPMN has the primary function of managing oracle application server 10g components including Oracle HTTP Server, OC4J (Oracle For Java) etc..
OPMN is composed mainly of the following three components :
1) Oracle Process Manager
2) Oracle Notification Server
3) Process Manager(PM) Modules
The script to manage OPMN is –
Parameters that can be used with this script – start, stop, status
This script creates the logfile – adopmnctl.txt
Location of logfile – central location of all the logs
Logfile is created when we supply parameters start, stop, status with the script
How to start apps middletier?
Whenever we want to start Oracle middle tier the first step is to start the listener. We can make use of Oracle supplied scripts to start the middle tier listener.. The script can be used to start/stop listener to manage the middle tier.The name of middle tier listener is of format APPS_ can be used with 3 parameters – start, stop, status
Give details on Oracle application territory support :-
Territory selected sets the defaults for day and week numbering (In USA Sunday is day 1, In Germany and many european countries Monday is Day 1)
It sets defaults for credit and debit symbols, date format, decimal and group numeric seperators, currency symbols
This has profound effect on the way in which application software behaves
How to create schema independent users in oracle OID?
Shared Schemas / Schema Independent Users are the users that are registered and maintaned in a LDAP repository.
LDAP – Lightweight directory access protocol – is the standard that is used by Oracle to implement directory service likInternet Directory(also called as Oracle Internet Directory(OID)).
There is one common schema.Users are saved in directory service.OID has details on user roles assigned at the time of login.Centralized user mangement is achieved using OID.
Give details on oracle e-business proxy authentication:-
Oracle e-business suite and several applications make use of tiered architecture.Database layer is the backend wherein data is stored.Middle-tier is the application tier which is usually made of Web Servers.
When a user tries to access the database data connection has to pass through the application layer/middle tier.
Proxy authorization comes into picture .
SQL>alter user user-name
grant connect through application-user authenticated using password;
The statement mentioned above demands password.For a user to be authenticated at the middle tier use:
SQL>alter user username grant connect through application-user;
What are credit or debit memos?
Credit or debit memos are used to record the credit for goods/services purchased. They are netted with invoices at payment time.
What is use of Oracle management service in middle tier?
The Oracle Management Service(OMS) is the middle tier. Before we can start using the grid control interface, we must firsmake sure that the middle tier OMS is running.At the end of the Grid Control software installation, the OMS should be automatically started by the installer.We can use the following command to check whether the OMS is running:
$ emctl status oms
If server is up we get the message as “Oracle Management Server is up”
If the OMS isn’t running start it up this way:
$ emctl start oms
The server starts with the message “Oracle Management Server is Up”
Give details on oracle coherence datagrid solution:
Oracle coherence 3.6 is the in-memory datagrid solution that has become a component of Oracle Fusion Middleware 11g. Oracle coherence 3.6 is used to address scaling challenges that are common in complex, mission-critical applications in a cost-effective fashion.
1) Oracle coherence provides support for distributed transactions
2) Oracle coherence quorum helps in capacity management, resource management in the grid and cloud frameworks
3) Security is enhanced through the Secure Socket Layer (SSL) connectivity
4) Coherence SQL language CohQL is used to improve efficiency and productivity in development
How to create JMS Resources Create JMS Queue in Oracle SOA?
We can create a JMS resource by using a Weblogic Server console.We create resources in the following order :
JMS queue and connection factory -> connection pool for that connection factory
Follow the steps for creating JMS resources :
1) Ensure that Weblogic server is started. If the Weblogic Server is not opened, open http://localhost:7001/console to start the WEblogic Server Console(WSLS Console). Login using weblogic/welcome1.
Note : Hostname, ports, username, password can be supplied according to your configuration.
2) In the Weblogic Server Console, on the left navigation bar, expand Services/Messaging. Click on JMS Modules
3) A new table popsup. The table is the summary of resources. This table is titled “Customize this table”. On this Summary of resources table, click on New tab.
4) Select the resource type : Queue. Click Next
5) Enter the Name as “ABCDYourValueQueue” and JNDI name as jms/ABCDYourValueQueue, Template : None
6) Click on Next
7) From the subdeployment list, select the SOASubDeployment
8) Under Targets section, from the JMS Servers list, select SOAJMSServer
9) Click on Finish tab.
Give details on Oracle bounda amount types financials:-
The combinations of amount types and boundaries that the system supports are as follows:
If the amount type is PTD, boundary can be Period.
If the amount type is QTD, boundary can be Period or Quarter.
If the amount type is YTD, boundary can be Period, Quarter or Year.
If the amount type is PJTD, boundary can be Period, Quarter, Year, or Project.
Oracle fusion middleware configuration wizard:-
I wanted to install and configure oracle fusion middleware 11g in my laptop. I’ve windows 7 installed in it. I started with downloading and installing Oracle database 10g Express Edition. Next I downloaded the repository creation utility and installed the sample schemas. I installed Oracle Weblogic Server and created middleware home at C:OracleMiddleware. Within the Middleware home Oracle weblogic server is installed. Now weblogic server home usually referred to as WL_HOME is inside the Oracle Fusion Middleware home C:OracleMiddleware. I have my weblogic server binary wlserver_10.3 installed in C:OracleMiddlewarewlserver_10.3. I invoked Quick Start From Start->All Programs->Oracle Weblogic and  I’ve included the middleware configuration wizard step by step screenshot. We start with creating a simple domain, creating an administration server, starting domain in development mode, finally deploying application. Finally we start the weblogic server and access the GUI at http://localhost:7001/
Concurrent Requests programs managers oracle applications:-
Oracle applications – Concurrent Requests, Concurrent Programs, Concurrent Processes, Concurrent Managers will be discussed here.Concurrent manager is an important term that an Oracle Applications DBA encounters frequently.Managing and maintaining concurrent manager is an essential role/function of a DBA.
What is concurrent processing?
Concurrent processing is the process of executing programs in background simultaneously with the online operations (i.e executing foregroun abd background operations simultaneously. In LINUX/UNIX, we can get list of foreground operations using the command fg, background operations using the command bg).
Concurrent processing facility is available in Oracle applications.Most of the background operations are report generation programs.A person with the system administrator responsibility has the privilege to control the number of OS processes associated with running a program.
What is a concurrent request?
When a program is scheduled to be run as a background job, the program to generate the report/program to be run is the concurrent request.Lets say a shell script is to be run
shell# ./ – concurrent request – this invokes process and can be looked at by issuing :
shell#ps -ef|grep – This outputs a process lisitng. It is concurrent request.
What is a concurrent program?
The script is the concurrent program.
What is a concurrent manager?
To start a concurrent program we need a concurrent manager. whenever there is a request to start a concurrent program, the request is inserted into a database table. The request is uniquely identified by a request ID. These requests from tables are read by the concurrent manager. Concurrent managers definition has information on how many operating system (OS)processes are to be dedicated to run the concurrent requests. These processes are referred to as target processes

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